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Free NPPE prep

Free NPPE Practice Questions, with Answers and Explanations

45 free sample questions across all nine National Professional Practice Examination (NPPE) topics, written for Canadian engineers-in-training. Each one shows the correct answer and a plain-language explanation so you understand the reasoning, not just the letter. When you are ready for the full 184-question bank, spaced-repetition flashcards, timed mock exams, and Watson (your AI study companion), create a free account.

Start studying freeSee the 34 P.Eng competencies

How to study for the NPPE

The NPPE is a 110-question, multiple-choice exam on professionalism, ethics, and engineering law that you write on the way to your P.Eng licence. The most reliable way to pass is active recall: answer questions, check the explanation, and revisit the topics you miss. Work through the samples below by topic, then drill the full bank with spaced repetition so the weak areas surface automatically.

Professionalism & Ethics

1.According to Mill's Utilitarianism, the most ethically correct choice in a dilemma is the one that:

  • A.Follows a universal rule that every person has a duty to obey, without exception
  • B.Produces the greatest benefit for the greatest number of people
  • C.Respects each individual's basic rights and avoids infringing on the rights of others
  • D.Develops virtues of character by finding the mean between two extremes
Reveal answer & explanation

Correct answer: B. Produces the greatest benefit for the greatest number of people

Mill's Utilitarianism holds that the best choice produces the maximum benefit for the greatest number of people. Option A describes Kant's duty (formalism) ethics, C describes Locke's rights ethics, and D describes Aristotle's virtue ethics.

2.An engineer is asked to take on an assignment in a field where the engineer currently lacks competence. Under the code of ethics, the engineer should:

  • A.Accept it only if competence can be gained within a reasonable amount of time without putting the client's project at risk
  • B.Accept it because refusing work damages the firm's reputation
  • C.Accept it and hire a junior to do the technical work
  • D.Always refuse any assignment outside the engineer's original degree specialization
Reveal answer & explanation

Correct answer: A. Accept it only if competence can be gained within a reasonable amount of time without putting the client's project at risk

The code permits accepting an assignment above one's current competence only if that competence can be gained in a reasonable amount of time, and the engineer must not put the client's project at risk. Blanket acceptance or always refusing are both wrong.

3.In a consultant-client relationship described by the 'balanced model', the consultant:

  • A.Makes all the decisions on behalf of the client
  • B.Simply takes orders from the client without offering advice
  • C.Provides the client with advice, but the client makes the decisions
  • D.Acts only as an impartial arbiter and gives no recommendations
Reveal answer & explanation

Correct answer: C. Provides the client with advice, but the client makes the decisions

In the balanced model, the consultant advises and the client decides. This is considered the most acceptable arrangement. The independent model has the consultant deciding for the client, and the agent model has the consultant merely taking orders.

4.A practitioner who refuses to co-operate with other professionals engaged on the same project would most directly be in breach of:

  • A.A secret commission
  • B.The code of ethics
  • C.A fiduciary trust to shareholders
  • D.The Sale of Goods Act
Reveal answer & explanation

Correct answer: B. The code of ethics

The code of ethics requires practitioners to conduct themselves with fairness and courtesy toward clients and colleagues. Failing to co-operate with fellow professionals on a project is a breach of the code of ethics.

5.When an engineer's professional decision is overruled by someone in authority on a matter of professional judgment, the code of ethics requires the engineer to:

  • A.Immediately report the matter to the media
  • B.Comply silently because the decision is no longer the engineer's responsibility
  • C.Advise those affected of the consequences of disregarding the engineer's professional decision
  • D.Resign from the firm at once
Reveal answer & explanation

Correct answer: C. Advise those affected of the consequences of disregarding the engineer's professional decision

Where professional judgment is overruled, the code requires the practitioner to present clearly the consequences to be expected from disregarding that judgment. The first step is to advise of the consequences, not to go to the media, comply silently, or resign immediately.

Engineering Law

1.Most of Canada follows the common law system. Which Canadian jurisdiction instead uses a civil law system based on a code derived from France's Napoleonic Code?

  • A.British Columbia
  • B.Ontario
  • C.Quebec
  • D.Alberta
Reveal answer & explanation

Correct answer: C. Quebec

Quebec uses civil law based on the French Napoleonic Code, while the rest of Canada uses common law, where laws are developed by judges through case precedent traced back to England.

2.Within a province's court hierarchy, which court is the lowest level and typically handles small claims up to a set monetary limit?

  • A.The Supreme Court of Canada
  • B.The Provincial (small claims) Court
  • C.The Provincial Court of Appeal
  • D.The provincial Supreme Court
Reveal answer & explanation

Correct answer: B. The Provincial (small claims) Court

The Provincial (small claims) Court is the lowest level of court and handles claims up to a monetary limit. Above it sit the provincial Supreme Court, the Court of Appeal, and finally the Supreme Court of Canada.

3.Under the regulation of the profession, what is the difference between 'discipline' and 'enforcement'?

  • A.Discipline applies to members; enforcement applies to non-members practising or using an exclusive title illegally
  • B.Discipline applies to non-members; enforcement applies only to licensed members
  • C.Both terms refer to the same regulatory process
  • D.Discipline is a criminal proceeding; enforcement is always a civil lawsuit
Reveal answer & explanation

Correct answer: A. Discipline applies to members; enforcement applies to non-members practising or using an exclusive title illegally

Discipline is the process of charging a member and proceeding to a hearing to determine guilt. Enforcement is charging a non-member for practising engineering or using an exclusive title such as P.Eng. or Engineer without a licence.

4.An engineer may apply their professional seal to a final document only when the engineer:

  • A.Has been asked to do so by the client, regardless of who prepared it
  • B.Personally prepared the document or supervised its preparation
  • C.Has performed a quick visual scan of the work
  • D.Adds a disclaimer noting the work was prepared by others
Reveal answer & explanation

Correct answer: B. Personally prepared the document or supervised its preparation

A practitioner may seal a document only if they personally prepared it or supervised its preparation. Sealing documents prepared by others, even with a disclaimer or a quick scan, is professional misconduct.

5.Which of the following is true about the relationship between federal and provincial law when they conflict in matters touching engineering?

  • A.Provincial law always prevails because engineering is provincially regulated
  • B.Federal law always prevails over provincial law
  • C.Municipal bylaws prevail over both federal and provincial law
  • D.The most recently enacted law prevails regardless of level
Reveal answer & explanation

Correct answer: B. Federal law always prevails over provincial law

The Canadian Constitution divides legislative powers between federal and provincial governments. Although engineering is usually governed by provincial law, where a conflict arises federal law always prevails.

Professional Liability & Tort Law

1.To succeed in a negligence claim in tort, the plaintiff must prove all of the following EXCEPT:

  • A.The defendant owed the plaintiff a duty of care
  • B.The defendant breached that duty of care
  • C.There was a written contract between the parties
  • D.The breach was the proximate cause of the plaintiff's loss
Reveal answer & explanation

Correct answer: C. There was a written contract between the parties

Tort liability arises independently of any contract. The plaintiff must prove a duty of care was owed, the duty was breached, and the breach proximately caused the loss or injury. A contract between the parties is not required.

2.The 'standard of care' owed by a professional engineer is best described as:

  • A.Perfection, with zero tolerance for any error
  • B.The level of skill and care expected of a reasonable, competent member of the profession
  • C.Whatever standard the client writes into the contract
  • D.The minimum needed to avoid criminal prosecution
Reveal answer & explanation

Correct answer: B. The level of skill and care expected of a reasonable, competent member of the profession

The standard of care is the level of skill and care that a reasonable, competent member of the profession would exercise. Not all errors are a breach of duty, only those that reasonable care would have prevented. It is not perfection and is not set unilaterally by the client.

3.Which of the following is an example of an INTENTIONAL tort rather than an unintentional one?

  • A.Negligence in preparing a design
  • B.Negligent misrepresentation in a report
  • C.Fraud
  • D.Failing to exercise reasonable care
Reveal answer & explanation

Correct answer: C. Fraud

Fraud (along with trespass and defamation) is an intentional tort. Negligence and negligent misrepresentation are unintentional torts that arise from a failure to take reasonable care.

4.Under the doctrine of vicarious liability, an employer is liable for an employee's negligence primarily because:

  • A.The employee always acts without supervision
  • B.The employer is presumed to be in a better financial position to compensate the injured party
  • C.Employees cannot be sued directly under Canadian law
  • D.The employer signed the employee's professional documents
Reveal answer & explanation

Correct answer: B. The employer is presumed to be in a better financial position to compensate the injured party

Vicarious liability makes the employer liable for an employee's negligence that causes injury or damage. The purpose is to compensate the injured party, and the employer is presumed to be in a better financial position than the employee to do so.

5.When a defect in an engineer's work is 'latent' (hidden) rather than 'patent', the limitation period for a claim generally begins to run:

  • A.On the date the contract was first signed
  • B.When the defect is discovered, or when it reasonably should have been discovered
  • C.Exactly two years after construction is complete, regardless of discovery
  • D.Only after a court has issued a judgment
Reveal answer & explanation

Correct answer: B. When the defect is discovered, or when it reasonably should have been discovered

For a latent (hidden) defect, the limitation period starts when the damage is discovered or when it reasonably should have been discovered. For patent defects, noticeable on reasonable inspection, time runs sooner. Engineers can also limit exposure with a contractual time period.

Contract Law

1.Which of the following is one of the essential elements required for a contract to be enforceable?

  • A.The agreement must be in writing and notarized
  • B.Consideration, meaning something of value is exchanged between the parties
  • C.Both parties must be members of a professional association
  • D.The contract must be registered with the court
Reveal answer & explanation

Correct answer: B. Consideration, meaning something of value is exchanged between the parties

The essential elements of an enforceable contract are: an offer made and accepted, mutual intent to contract, consideration (something of value exchanged), capacity, and a lawful purpose. A contract need not be written, notarized, or registered to be enforceable.

2.Under the doctrine of quantum meruit, when work has been requested and performed but no price was agreed upon, the courts will:

  • A.Award nothing because there was no enforceable contract
  • B.Award an amount equal to what the work is reasonably worth
  • C.Require the work to be redone at the worker's expense
  • D.Award only the cost of materials, never the labour
Reveal answer & explanation

Correct answer: B. Award an amount equal to what the work is reasonably worth

Quantum meruit means 'as much as is reasonably deserved'. Where services were requested and performed without a payment agreement, the court awards an amount based on the reasonable value of the time spent and materials supplied.

3.Under the rule of contra proferentem, an ambiguous term in a contract will be interpreted:

  • A.In favour of the party that drafted the term
  • B.Against the party that drafted the term
  • C.By striking the entire contract as void
  • D.According to whichever meaning costs less money
Reveal answer & explanation

Correct answer: B. Against the party that drafted the term

Contra proferentem provides that an ambiguous contract term is interpreted against the party that drafted it. This encourages clear drafting and protects the party who did not write the wording.

4.Which of the following grounds may make a contract voidable because one party untruly stated a fact to induce the other to enter the contract?

  • A.Frustration
  • B.Misrepresentation
  • C.Consideration
  • D.Acceptance
Reveal answer & explanation

Correct answer: B. Misrepresentation

Misrepresentation is an untrue statement made by one party to induce the other into the contract, and it can be innocent, negligent, or fraudulent. Frustration involves unforeseen events making performance impossible; consideration and acceptance are required elements of a valid contract.

5.A clause that sets out a pre-estimate of the damages likely to result from non-performance, agreed to in advance and written into the contract, is called:

  • A.A penalty clause
  • B.A liquidated damages clause
  • C.A bonus clause
  • D.An indemnity clause
Reveal answer & explanation

Correct answer: B. A liquidated damages clause

Liquidated damages are pre-estimates of loss written into the contract, and they are generally enforceable. A penalty clause is a punishment for breach and is often NOT enforced by courts. A bonus clause rewards good performance, and an indemnity shifts a financial loss.

Workplace Law & Labour Relations

1.Under common law employment, when an employer terminates an employee without just cause, the employer must generally provide:

  • A.Nothing, since at-will termination applies in Canada
  • B.Reasonable notice or pay in lieu, otherwise the employer may be sued for wrongful dismissal
  • C.A written apology to the employee
  • D.Continued employment until the employee finds a new job
Reveal answer & explanation

Correct answer: B. Reasonable notice or pay in lieu, otherwise the employer may be sued for wrongful dismissal

Without just cause, an employer must give adequate notice or severance pay; otherwise the employee can sue for wrongful dismissal. 'Just cause' exists only where the employee has breached the employment contract.

2.An employer fundamentally changes the terms of an employee's contract (for example, a significant demotion or pay cut) and the employee rejects the change and leaves. This situation is known as:

  • A.Just cause termination
  • B.Constructive dismissal
  • C.Voluntary resignation
  • D.A layoff by seniority
Reveal answer & explanation

Correct answer: B. Constructive dismissal

Constructive dismissal occurs when the employer unilaterally changes a fundamental term of the contract and the employee rejects it. The law may treat this as a dismissal, exposing the employer to wrongful dismissal damages.

3.Under the 'Rand Formula' applied in a unionized workplace, all employees in the bargaining unit are required to:

  • A.Become full voting members of the union
  • B.Pay union dues, whether or not they join the union
  • C.Cross any picket line during a strike
  • D.Sign a closed shop agreement before being hired
Reveal answer & explanation

Correct answer: B. Pay union dues, whether or not they join the union

The Rand Formula requires all employees in the unit to pay union dues, even those who choose not to become members, on the basis that all benefit from collective bargaining. A closed shop requires union membership as a precondition of hiring, which is a different concept.

4.Which mechanism is used to resolve a dispute over the interpretation or application of an existing collective agreement within a unionized workplace?

  • A.A secondary picket
  • B.Grievance arbitration
  • C.A lockout
  • D.A jurisdictional strike
Reveal answer & explanation

Correct answer: B. Grievance arbitration

Grievance arbitration is used to enforce collective agreements, determining the parties' rights under an existing agreement when one party alleges the other breached it. Strikes, lockouts, and picketing are pressure tactics used when negotiating a new agreement, not for interpreting an existing one.

5.Under occupational health and safety (OH&S) law, workers are generally entitled to all of the following rights EXCEPT:

  • A.The right to be informed of dangers in the workplace
  • B.The right to refuse dangerous work
  • C.The right to participate on the health and safety committee
  • D.The right to sue their own employer in tort for a workplace injury covered by workers' compensation
Reveal answer & explanation

Correct answer: D. The right to sue their own employer in tort for a workplace injury covered by workers' compensation

OH&S gives workers the right to be informed of dangers, to refuse dangerous work, and to be on the health and safety committee. However, because employers pay into workers' compensation (WCB), employees generally cannot sue their own employer in tort for a covered workplace injury.

Intellectual Property

1.A Canadian patent protects a new and useful invention for a term of:

  • A.10 years from the date of registration
  • B.15 years, renewable indefinitely
  • C.20 years from the date of registration
  • D.The life of the inventor plus 50 years
Reveal answer & explanation

Correct answer: C. 20 years from the date of registration

A patent protects a new and useful invention and the exclusive rights to produce, sell, and use it for 20 years from the date of registration. It must be registered with the patent office to be valid.

2.Which form of intellectual property does NOT need to be registered in order to be valid?

  • A.Patent
  • B.Copyright
  • C.Trademark
  • D.Industrial design
Reveal answer & explanation

Correct answer: B. Copyright

Copyright protects literary, musical, dramatic, and artistic works and does not need to be registered to be valid. Patents, trademarks, and industrial designs must all be registered to be protected.

3.How long does copyright protection generally last under current Canadian law?

  • A.For 20 years from registration
  • B.For the lifetime of the creator plus 70 years
  • C.For 15 years, renewable indefinitely
  • D.For the lifetime of the creator plus 50 years
Reveal answer & explanation

Correct answer: B. For the lifetime of the creator plus 70 years

Under current Canadian law (in force since December 2022 under CUSMA), copyright generally lasts for the lifetime of the creator plus 70 years. Older study materials cite life plus 50 years, which was the rule before the 2022 extension. Copyright protects against copying, publication, and performance of the work.

4.An engineer wishes to protect the distinctive aesthetic shape and visual appearance of a new product (not how it functions). The appropriate form of protection is a(n):

  • A.Patent
  • B.Trademark
  • C.Industrial design
  • D.Trade secret
Reveal answer & explanation

Correct answer: C. Industrial design

An industrial design protects the aesthetic appearance, shape, configuration, and general look of an item for 10 years. A patent protects how a device functions; a trademark protects identifying marks; a trade secret protects confidential business information.

5.Which of the following best describes the protection given to a trade secret?

  • A.It is automatically registered for 20 years once disclosed
  • B.It has no formal legal registration status, but can be protected through secrecy contracts enforced under contract or tort law
  • C.It is protected for the life of the creator plus 50 years
  • D.It must be registered with the patent office like an invention
Reveal answer & explanation

Correct answer: B. It has no formal legal registration status, but can be protected through secrecy contracts enforced under contract or tort law

A trade secret has no formal legal status as registered IP. A company protects it by keeping it secret and having employees sign secrecy (confidentiality) contracts, which can then be enforced under contract law or tort law.

Business Structures & Organizations

1.Two people start a business together. One contributes only money and does not take part in running the business, while the other manages operations with unlimited liability. This arrangement is best described as a:

  • A.Sole proprietorship
  • B.General partnership
  • C.Limited partnership
  • D.Public corporation
Reveal answer & explanation

Correct answer: C. Limited partnership

In a limited partnership, the general partner runs the business with unlimited liability, while the limited partner only contributes money and is liable only for the amount contributed, provided they do not actively manage the business.

2.A key advantage of incorporating a business (forming a corporation) compared with a sole proprietorship is that:

  • A.It is the cheapest and simplest structure to set up
  • B.The corporation is a separate legal entity, so shareholders' personal assets are generally shielded from corporate liabilities
  • C.It eliminates the need to keep any separate financial records
  • D.It exempts the business from all taxation
Reveal answer & explanation

Correct answer: B. The corporation is a separate legal entity, so shareholders' personal assets are generally shielded from corporate liabilities

A corporation is a separate legal entity (a legal 'person'), so liability is generally limited to the corporation and shareholders' personal assets are protected. Sole proprietorships are cheaper to set up, but a corporation requires separate accounts and records.

3.A director of a corporation owes a fiduciary duty, which requires the director to:

  • A.Maximize their own personal financial return from board decisions
  • B.Act honestly, in good faith, and in the best interests of the corporation
  • C.Vote on every contract regardless of personal interest
  • D.Report only to the company's largest shareholder
Reveal answer & explanation

Correct answer: B. Act honestly, in good faith, and in the best interests of the corporation

A director's fiduciary duty is the obligation to behave honestly, in good faith, and in the best interests of the corporation, placing the corporation's interests above the director's own.

4.A corporate director discovers that a transaction the board is about to vote on involves a company in which the director personally holds shares. The most appropriate action is to:

  • A.Mention the ownership and then vote anyway
  • B.Vote in favour because the contract is small
  • C.Declare the conflict of interest and abstain from voting
  • D.Resign from the board immediately
Reveal answer & explanation

Correct answer: C. Declare the conflict of interest and abstain from voting

A director must disclose any personal interest in a material contract or transaction the corporation is involved in, and must not vote on it. The correct action is to declare the conflict of interest and not vote.

5.What is the principal defence available to corporate directors and officers facing liability under statutes governing matters such as unpaid wages, taxes, or environmental breaches?

  • A.Insider knowledge of the breach
  • B.Due diligence, having taken all reasonable steps to ensure no breaches occurred
  • C.Limited liability of the corporation
  • D.A waiver of subrogation
Reveal answer & explanation

Correct answer: B. Due diligence, having taken all reasonable steps to ensure no breaches occurred

Several statutes impose obligations on directors and officers (wages, environment, taxes). The principal defence is due diligence: showing that all reasonable, active steps were taken to ensure no breaches occurred. Note that liability insurance does not protect against jail time.

Construction & Project Delivery

1.Which project delivery method has the owner contracting directly with the various trades instead of hiring a general contractor, leaving the owner exposed to the risk of increased costs?

  • A.Design-build
  • B.Construction management
  • C.Design-bid-build
  • D.Public-private partnership (P3)
Reveal answer & explanation

Correct answer: B. Construction management

In construction management, the owner hires the trades directly rather than a general contractor, so the owner carries the risk of cost increases. Design-bid-build uses a contractor to build a completed design, and design-build has one party both design and build.

2.A 'holdback' under provincial lien legislation works by having the owner:

  • A.Pay the general contractor in full up front to speed up the project
  • B.Retain a percentage (e.g., 10%) of each progress payment until the lien period expires, to protect unpaid subcontractors and suppliers
  • C.Refuse to pay any invoices until the project is fully complete
  • D.Deposit the entire contract value into a trust account before work begins
Reveal answer & explanation

Correct answer: B. Retain a percentage (e.g., 10%) of each progress payment until the lien period expires, to protect unpaid subcontractors and suppliers

A holdback (retainage) requires the owner to hold back a set percentage of each progress payment (commonly 10%) until the project is complete and the lien period passes. It gives unpaid subcontractors and suppliers a fund to claim against if they file a lien.

3.In a fixed-price (lump sum) construction contract, which standard CCDC document is most commonly used?

  • A.CCDC 2
  • B.CCDC 3
  • C.CCDC 4
  • D.CCDC 5
Reveal answer & explanation

Correct answer: A. CCDC 2

CCDC 2 is the standard form fixed-price (stipulated price) contract. CCDC 3 is the standard cost-plus contract and CCDC 4 is the standard unit price contract.

4.The primary purpose of a construction (builders' or mechanics') lien is to:

  • A.Allow owners to legally hold back money from contractors indefinitely
  • B.Provide security so that those who supply labour and materials get paid
  • C.Let engineers and geoscientists finish projects faster
  • D.Guarantee a contractor a minimum level of profit
Reveal answer & explanation

Correct answer: B. Provide security so that those who supply labour and materials get paid

A lien facilitates credit in the construction industry and provides security for payment for labour and materials. It places a charge against the property, making it difficult to sell, until those who did the work are paid.

5.A performance bond, used to guarantee a contractor's performance of a construction contract, is generally issued for an amount equal to approximately:

  • A.10% of the contract value
  • B.25% of the contract value
  • C.50% of the contract value
  • D.100% of the contract value
Reveal answer & explanation

Correct answer: C. 50% of the contract value

A performance bond, in which the surety guarantees the contractor's performance, is generally about 50% of the contract value. By contrast, a bid bond is generally about 10% of the contract value.

Environmental & Public Safety

1.Which federal statute is specifically aimed at protecting fish habitat by forbidding activities that jeopardize it?

  • A.The Canadian Environmental Protection Act
  • B.The Fisheries Act
  • C.The Canadian Environmental Assessment Act
  • D.The Kyoto Protocol
Reveal answer & explanation

Correct answer: B. The Fisheries Act

The Fisheries Act protects against actions that degrade fish habitat and is administered through the Department of Fisheries and Oceans (DFO). The Canadian Environmental Protection Act is the main federal pollution-prevention law, and the Canadian Environmental Assessment Act governs assessment of government projects.

2.Most environmental offences are 'strict liability' offences. For such offences, the only available defence is generally:

  • A.Proving the contamination was not foreseeable
  • B.Showing there was no contract requiring compliance
  • C.Due diligence, having taken all reasonable steps to satisfy the regulations
  • D.Demonstrating that the polluter could not afford remediation
Reveal answer & explanation

Correct answer: C. Due diligence, having taken all reasonable steps to satisfy the regulations

Because most environmental offences are strict liability, intent need not be proven; the only defence is due diligence, that is, showing all reasonable steps were taken to satisfy the regulations and prevent the offence.

3.An engineer conducts an environmental site assessment (ESA) that uses historical records and a site review to determine the likelihood of contamination, without any drilling or sampling. This is best described as:

  • A.A Phase 1 ESA
  • B.A Phase 2 ESA
  • C.A Phase 3 ESA
  • D.An environmental impact assessment
Reveal answer & explanation

Correct answer: A. A Phase 1 ESA

A Phase 1 ESA determines the likelihood of contamination using records of the site and a review, without drilling. A Phase 2 ESA assesses the quantity of contamination by testing soil and water, and a Phase 3 ESA covers remediation.

4.Under the general approach to environmental clean-up in the material, who is primarily responsible for paying the cost of remediation?

  • A.Only the current owner of the land
  • B.Only the provincial government
  • C.The polluter, under the polluter-pays principle, though others connected to the property may also be liable
  • D.Only the original manufacturer of the contaminating substance
Reveal answer & explanation

Correct answer: C. The polluter, under the polluter-pays principle, though others connected to the property may also be liable

The polluter-pays principle governs clean-up: the polluter pays for remediation, although the owner of the substance and other key players connected to the property may also be required to pay. Everyone connected to the property is at risk.

5.When a design engineer identifies a clear and evident hazard in a design that cannot be removed, the duty is to:

  • A.Ignore it if the design otherwise meets the budget
  • B.Make the hazard obvious (e.g., warn the user) if it cannot be eliminated or shielded
  • C.Transfer all responsibility to the client by contract
  • D.Delay action until a failure actually occurs
Reveal answer & explanation

Correct answer: B. Make the hazard obvious (e.g., warn the user) if it cannot be eliminated or shielded

Under hazard analysis, the engineer should identify the hazard and eliminate it when possible; when it cannot be eliminated, shield it; and when it cannot be shielded, provide remedial action such as warning the user so the danger is made obvious.

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squared.engineering is an independent study aid and is not affiliated with Engineers Canada or any provincial engineering regulator. These practice questions are for study purposes and are not actual exam questions.